Walid Shoebat Youtube Video on the Mark of the Beast
In a video that’s posted on Youtube and is making the rounds in popular Christian circles, an Arab Christian claims that there are three Arabic words in Revelation 13.18, the passage that speaks about the number of the beast.
Here’s the link to the video: Walid Shoebat – Mark of the Beast
Walid Shoebat claims in this video that the mark of the beast is Islam itself. Certainly, Christians can recognize that Islam denies the deity of Christ, vicarious atonement, and bodily resurrection; for this reason, Islam is a false religion. We can also recognize that there are small groups of Muslims who are radical and would like to destroy Israel and America. But does this make Islam the Antichrist? That’s rather doubtful.
Shoebat’s basis is this: “When I first saw the Codex Vaticanus, I was literally shocked because I could read the text. It was Arabic! … ‘In the name of Allah.’”
But Shoebat did not read Codex Vaticanus. This codex is the famous fourth-century Greek New Testament (and Old Testament) manuscript that ends at Hebrews 9.13. The material added after Heb 9.13 is all in a much later hand. According to the authoritative Kurzgefasste Liste der griechischen Handschriften des Neuen Testaments, 2nd edition (Berlin: Walter de Gruyter, 1994), the supplement (known as codex 1957) was written in the 15th century. What Shoebat saw was not technically Codex Vaticanus but Codex 1957, a text written over a thousand years after Vaticanus.
In his video, he explains how the three Greek letters χξς in Revelation 13.18 are not really Greek at all, but Arabic. On top of the stretch to make the Arabic words fit, there are other severe problems with Shoebat’s claims. As much as some Christians would like for Shoebat’s interpretation to be correct, it fails at many levels. Let’s examine Shoebat’s claims.
1. Rev 13.18 specifically introduces this symbol as the number of the beast. The word ‘number’ is used three times in this verse. We are thus expecting a number, not a foreign word, to be introduced. Shoebat offers no explanation how ‘number’ can mean anything other than number here.
All he says is that “God is not the author of mysteries… His yoke is easy. God is not interested in gematria. Gematria is a process that was used in witchcraft.” These statements are self-serving, contradictory, and incorrect. To say that God is not the author of mysteries is stunningly naïve. Of course he’s the author of mysteries. “Mystery” is a word that occurs 28 times in the NT. Almost every time it is used in collocation with a positive word: ‘the mystery of godliness,’ ‘the mystery of the gospel,’ ‘the mystery of faith,’ etc. Jesus’ parables were a form of mystery (something that was unknown to the listeners until revelation about the parables was given). Furthermore, if there is Arabic in Rev 13.18, why wouldn’t that qualify as a mystery for most readers? And if no one until Walid Shoebat had properly understood the meaning here, then the text has obviously been a mystery for 1900 years. To say that “[God’s] yoke is easy” is to wrench out of context what Jesus said about what it means to follow him in Matthew 11.29–30: his yoke is easy because it does not burden someone down with legalism. The text has nothing to do with interpretation. Judging by the disparate interpretations of scripture for the several millennia, if an easy yoke means that the interpretation of the text is plain and straightforward at all points, then scripture has created a brutally hard yoke for us.
Shoebat argues that Rev 13.18 can’t refer to a number because gematria was evil, used in witchcraft. That may be, but even if so (Shoebat gives no evidence of this), it was not always used for evil purposes. And the fact that Rev 13.18 explicitly links a person’s name to a number tells us that the author is thinking along the lines of gematria. If the number 666 is authentic, it may be significant that the gematria for the name “Jesus” (Ἰησοῦς) is 888. And just as 666 comes short of perfection, 888 is beyond perfection (since 7 is often viewed, biblically speaking, as the perfect number). Early Christians thought of some passages as involving gematria. For example, Barnabas 9.8 (early second century) says, concerning the 318 servants of Abraham mentioned in Gen 14.14, “For it says: ‘And Abraham circumcised ten and eight and three hundred men of his household.’ What, then, is the knowledge that was given to him? Observe that it mentions the ‘ten and eight’ first, and then after an interval the ‘three hundred.’ As for the ‘ten and eight,’ the Ι [iota] is ten and the Η [eta] is eight; thus you have ‘Jesus’ [the first two letters of the name ‘Jesus’ in Greek]. And because the cross, which is shaped like the Τ [tau], was destined to convey grace, it mentions also the ‘three hundred.’ [The Greek letter tau had a numerical value of 300.] So he reveals Jesus in the two letters, and the cross in the other one.”
Matthew’s genealogy may also fit this, since his mention of three groups of 14 generations is somewhat artificial, since he skips some ancestors of Jesus. But since the name David had a gematria of fourteen, the evangelist may have been thinking along the lines of David’s gematria for his grouping. Among Jews, see a similar treatment of Gen 14.14 in the Talmud (b.Ned 32a).2. Arabic was a rather minor language at the time that the Apocalypse was written, almost surely unknown to John the Seer. Further, the alphabet looked quite different in the early centuries. Not only this, but the first written record we have of Arabic comes from the early sixth century—over 400 years after the Apocalypse was written. And the Greek script that Shoebat saw in Codex 1957 at the back of Vaticanus (and which he thought was Arabic) was Greek minuscule script, a form of script that was not used in biblical manuscripts until the 9th century! In the majuscule script (found in all NT manuscripts until the 9th century when the minuscule script began to take over), the letters would look like this: cxs. Are these characters Arabic? Shoebat’s entire thesis crumbles at this point. There are simply too many anachronisms here for the view to have any validity.
3. A further point on the majuscule script: Below is the drawing that Shoebat made of the Arabic, which bears almost no resemblance to the majuscule text.

He makes a big point about the first letter (going from left to right): this letter is the Muslim symbol of crossed swords. But in order for it to do so, there must be a tittle at the bottom of each leg (i.e., the font must be serif on the bottom but not the top). This is not the way the majuscule text was written, and only by a stretch of the imagination could one see the minuscule text fitting this style. Below is a picture of the chi in Codex Sinaiticus, a fourth-century majuscule. Notice that any curvature is at the top, not the bottom.

The next two letters, xi and sigma, as found in Sinaiticus:

No matter how you slice it, the Arabic above simply doesn’t look like the Greek.
4. Ancient Greek has no numerical symbols other than letters of the alphabet. When the Greeks wanted to write a number, they had two choices: either write out the name of the number (e.g., “six hundred and sixty-six,” as is found in Codex Sinaiticus, contrary to what Shoebat claimed), or write out the letters that were used for numbers. When they did the latter, they either wrote a horizontal line above the symbols or an acute accent afterward—both to show that this was not a word that was to be read, but something else. One of the features of the earliest copies of the Greek NT was that the manuscripts were written in a ‘documentary’ hand rather than a literary hand. A documentary hand is less elegant, but also utilizes some shorthand not found in literary hands. One of the major shorthand features is using alpha-symbols for numbers. This was not done in literary writing, but it was done in documentary texts. The earliest manuscripts of Revelation do this at Rev 13.18. The horizontal bar over these three letters indicate that the scribes recognized that this was not a word but a number.
5. As early as the second half of the second century AD, there is patristic discussion about the number of the beast. Irenaeus, bishop of Lyons, speaks about having seen early copies of the Apocalypse as having the number 666 written in this verse. He contrasts this with some more recent copies that have 616. If Shoebat is right, then what John wrote was forgotten almost immediately (for Irenaeus thought it represented a number), only to resurface after 1900 years. But John would have to have written the text in a form of letters that didn’t come into vogue for another 700 years in order to be read as Arabic words whose alphabet could not match the Greek letters, even with the employment of a wild imagination, for at least 400 years! In other words, what Shoebat thought he saw was later Arabic forms that did not exist in John’s day based on even later Greek forms that did not exist in John’s day. The chronology for both the Greek being confused for Arabic and the look of the Arabic itself simply won’t work in the first century.
Conspiracy theories tend to move in the realm of the non-falsifiable. They stoke the fires of imagination and fear, and give the uninformed a sense of enablement and mission because they are in the ‘know.’ But such theories are usually unproductive and even self-destructive, unless they are backed up with overwhelming evidence. This one isn’t.
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Fadie Fahmy on 04 Dec 2009 at 8:58 am #
Islam being the AntiChrist & Co. is a widely held Arab Christian thought among populars. Other passages used to argue so (Major one is Rev 6:8). However, about the Arabic script in Greek MSS, have you noticed the Arabic script in Sinaticus in the margins of Rev 6,7 & 8? It seems like a commentary of an Arab scribe who doesn’t know Arabic well.
sammy on 04 Dec 2009 at 1:23 pm #
You say:
Walid Shoebat claims in this video that the mark of the beast is Islam itself. Certainly, Christians can recognize that Islam denies the deity of Christ, vicarious atonement, and bodily resurrection; for this reason, Islam is a false religion. We can also recognize that there are small groups of Muslims who are radical and would like to destroy Israel and America. But does this make Islam the Antichrist? That’s rather doubtful.
It doesn’t make it THE Antichrist but is AN Antichrist system according to 1 John 2:22-23 which tells us that an antichrist is one who denies the Father and the Son. This Islam certainly denies!
Michael L on 04 Dec 2009 at 7:29 pm #
Sigh
http://www.jpost.com/servlet/Satellite?apage=1&cid=1206632362598&pagename=JPost%2FJPArticle%2FShowFull
Form your own opinion.
Thanks Dan for the textual criticism on his claims
In Him
Mick
bethyada on 04 Dec 2009 at 10:00 pm #
We now what the Bible teaches through it imparting knowledge/ information through the words. That is why translation works.
The idea that there is meaning based on how letters “look”, does not square with the concept of information. The shape of the letters and the material they are written on is irrelevant to meaning. Meaning is primary and choice of code is arbitrary.
Good post Dan.
Marv on 04 Dec 2009 at 11:52 pm #
Dr. Wallace, the third numeral that would indicate six is, as you know, the ligature stigma, not actually the letter sigma. At some point it began to substitute for wau/digamma, if I am not mistaken. Did ligatures such as stigma even exist prior to the minuscules?
Daniel B. Wallace on 05 Dec 2009 at 3:36 am #
Marv, the final sigma served both for the sigma (worth 6 in gematria) and stigma (worth 200). If it’s a stigma here, it would give the number of the beast as 860.
Marv on 05 Dec 2009 at 1:06 pm #
Hmm? All right then I’ve got a couple of things wrong in my head. So if you don’t mind, let me say how I have understood it and you can set me straight. First, Gematria? Why even mention this? The Greek alphabet doubles as a numeral system right? So each letter simply has a normal value. Alpha is one, beta two, iota ten, right, because even though it’s now the ninth letter, there once was wau following epsilon, where we have f. Wau became obsolete very early on, well before the NT. Then we see stigma being substituted for its numeral use, not really a letter but a ligature, a combined sigma and tau. This I thought, LOOKS a lot like a final sigma but is not the same, straigher and longer along the top stroke, for example. I don’t know when stigma was invented, but I always assumed it came in with all the other ligatures used in the minuscules. Anyway, this I thought indicated a numerical value of six. And sigma, I thought was 200, whether final form or not.
Anyway, in terms of textual criticism, do we have any indication whether John wrote out the long form of 666/616 or used numeral letters as some MSS have it?
Daniel B. Wallace on 05 Dec 2009 at 7:08 pm #
Marv, it’s difficult to tell which John would have written—the gematria (which this is, since John explicitly links a person’s name with his number) or the names of the number as in Sinaiticus. However, we do know this: the earliest manuscripts used the abbreviations for numbers, in line with documentary (as opposed to literary) texts. There is strong evidence that the earliest scribes were from the ranks of accountants, bookkeepers, etc. rather than literary scribes, since virtually all documentary texts in the early centuries CE used abbreviations for the numbers, while virtually all literary texts spelled them out.
John on 07 Dec 2009 at 8:52 pm #
Doesn’t look like a conspiracy theory. Merely a crazy and far out theory.
Cornell on 08 Dec 2009 at 8:35 pm #
Dr. Wallace,
You mention this in your excellent article:
“When they did the latter, they either wrote a horizontal line above the symbols or an acute accent afterward—both to show that this was not a word that was to be read, but something else.”
Did not the Nomina Sacra also put a horizontal line above the letters yet not to indicate a number was being shorthanded, but rather a word?
CQ
Marv on 09 Dec 2009 at 11:35 am #
It has to be admitted that a typical presentation of Allah is reminiscent of a sideways xi, even with a line across the top, that is if you first turn it clockwise and reverse it. I suspect this initially caught the gentleman’s eye.
The “bism” = “in the name of” doesn’t look very much like the sigma/stigma, i.e. the third character. And the crossed swords for chi is just a stretch.
I once had to correct some copy in which the typesetter managed to set all the author’s Hebrew into the closest looking Greek letters he could find. Alephs became chi’s. Heth’s became pi’s. What a mess! But the eye sees the patterns it is familiar with.
Daniel B. Wallace on 10 Dec 2009 at 2:10 am #
Cornell, yes, that is correct. However, since the numbers didn’t look like the nomina sacra, there would be no confusion.
Mitchell Powell on 18 Jan 2010 at 3:24 pm #
Good job pointing out what should have been obvious enough to prevent this gentleman Walid from ever speaking on this topic in front of a group of Christians. It sort of reminds me of the folks who thought God’s name יהוה YHWH was equivalent to the nonsenical Greek word πιπι pipi.
Daniel B. Wallace on 18 Jan 2010 at 9:59 pm #
Touche, Mitchell!
Linda on 25 Jul 2010 at 9:35 pm #
I don’t know who any of you are, but having grown up in Independent Baptist circles (and having a Bible degree of my own. . .), this article comes across as a bit of a classic tantrum–the kind I saw over and over again when an outsider would deign to have a “new” idea, or the audacity to disagree with THE interpretation of the annointed remnant.
No doubt all of you will hop back on here to criticize me and chuckle in your shirtsleeves with your superior abilities in textual criticism (excuse my rather jaded conditioning, but it was externally imposed).
I just wanted to inform you that if, in fact, Islam IS the mark of the beast (we’ll all find out rather soon, I believe), I’ll be grinning and saying “Nana-nana-boo-boo!” while I’m being beheaded for my faith.
(Nope. Not had a THING to drink–imagine how entertaining I’d be if I did. . .)
WoundedEgo on 01 Aug 2010 at 1:35 pm #
My own view is that the antichrist/man of sin is the worshiped Jesus, and the “man’s number” is the “trinitarian number” of 666. Jesus, being a man, is worshiped as God, claiming to be God (something Jesus never did).
The “spirit of antichrist” is actually the “breath” that speaks of Jesus being God.
Ephesians 2:2 Wherein in time past ye walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of **the air [of] the spirit [breath]** that now worketh in the children of disobedience:
The worshiped Jesus is the “prince of the authority of the air of the breath that now works in the children of disobedience.”
Daniel B. Wallace on 01 Aug 2010 at 6:08 pm #
Wounded Ego, I’m afraid that your view not only has absolutely no basis in the New Testament, but it is also heresy of the worst kind. You have twisted the scriptures out of all proportion. Ephesians 2.2 and Revelation 13.18 are referring to the devil and the antichrist, not to Christ. How in the world can you get this meaning out of these passages? And to say that Jesus never claimed to be God flies in the face of many passages, including Mark 2.5, John 5.17-18, 20.28-29, Mark 14.62-64, etc. You should read Bowman and Komoszewski’s _Putting Jesus in His Place_ if you want to see what Jesus said and did that showed that he did indeed see himself as deity.
In John 5.23, the Lord said, “all should honor the Son just as they honor the Father. The one who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him.”
WoundedEgo on 01 Aug 2010 at 8:19 pm #
>>>…are referring to the devil and the antichrist, not to Christ…
You may have misunderstood me. I was not saying that they referred to Christ, but rather to the antichrist (the one “in the stead of Christ”). In other words, the authentic Jesus was a man and not God. The antichrist is the false representation of Jesus. For example:
1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
The “breath of antichrist” that John refers to is the breath that misreprents the humanity of Jesus.
Now, as to Jesus forgiving sins, that does not represent a claim to “deity”, or the “Trinity” would have to get huge:
John 20:23 Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
And for an intelligent person, that is a pretty claim verse to cite. And what of the verses the show that *only the father* is God?:
1 Corinthians 8:6a But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him…
Daniel B. Wallace on 01 Aug 2010 at 9:50 pm #
Did you read the rest of Mark 2? Jesus forgives the sins of a person who did not sin against HIM. Obviously, we can forgive each other when they sin against us. But who can forgive someone who sins against others? Notice the context: two verses later the religious leaders say, “Why does this man say this? He blasphemes. No one is able to forgive sins except God.”
As for John 20.23, the excellent note in the NET Bible says, “This is probably not referring to apostolic power to forgive or retain the sins of individuals (as it is sometimes understood), but to the “power” of proclaiming this forgiveness which was entrusted to the disciples. This is consistent with the idea that the disciples are to carry on the ministry of Jesus after he has departed from the world and returned to the Father.”
Regarding 1 Cor 8.6, you only quoted the first part of the verse. The rest says, “and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through him we exist.” Many have noted that this is Paul’s Christological expansion on the Shema, Deut 6.4: “Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.” Paul almost always uses “Lord” to refer to Christ, rather than to the Father, and in such a way that clearly points to his deity. He often quotes from the Old Testament in passages which speak of Yahweh, and Paul now uses such passages to speak of Christ.
WoundedEgo on 02 Aug 2010 at 11:49 am #
>>>…Notice the context: two verses later the religious leaders say, “Why does this man say this? He blasphemes. No one is able to forgive sins except God.”
Jesus addresses the objection, not by saying “But I am God!” (which is apparently how Trinitarians read this. Rather he defends the authority of the son of man. The appeal is to Psalm 8, where God sets the son of man in authority over all things, as well as to Daniel’s vision, where, likewise, God gives to a human being all authority. So, it is not necessary to take a reckless logical leap from Jesus great having authority (which we are explicitly told was given from God to a human being) into a redefinition of God. Jesus *constantly* insists that he can only do what he is directed by God, and that he does nothing originating from himself.
WoundedEgo on 02 Aug 2010 at 11:56 am #
>>>…Regarding 1 Cor 8.6, you only quoted the first part of the verse.
It is in the first part of the verse that Paul unambiguously affirms the Shema. Jesus does the same here:
17:3 Now this 7 is eternal life 8 – that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, 9 whom you sent. 17:4 I glorified you on earth by completing 10 the work you gave me to do. 11
Jesus likewas affirms that the father is the **only** true god. And like Paul, Jesus is the one that God sent. He glorifies God by performing that which God assigned to him to do. What could be clearer?
WoundedEgo on 02 Aug 2010 at 11:58 am #
>>>The rest says, “and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through him we exist.”
That’s not a very accurate translation. But at any point, it does **not** proclaims Jesus to be God.
>>Many have noted that this is Paul’s Christological expansion on the Shema, Deut 6.4: “Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one.”
Not at all. It is his **affirmation** of it!!
WoundedEgo on 02 Aug 2010 at 12:07 pm #
>>>Paul almost always uses “Lord” to refer to Christ, rather than to the Father, and in such a way that clearly points to his deity.
This is because God made Jesus to take the job of being lord from himself, because Jesus was obedient (see Phil 2). In other words, God used to be the KURIOS of his people, but he temporarily entrusted that role to Jesus. But Paul says that once the 1000 year reign is over, Jesus will go back to being a civilian, of no more authority than anyone else so that God himself may be “all in all.” See 1 Cor 15
C Michael Patton on 02 Aug 2010 at 6:15 pm #
Thanks for posting, but please read the blog rules and don’t post one right after another. Next time we will have to delete them.
Also, understand that this is a very old post and, as a general rule, will not have much engagement from the author (as it is impossible).
WoundedEgo on 02 Aug 2010 at 6:23 pm #
Okay. Shalom.